Practice set 3 of 16 · AI-200 Exam Preparation

AI-200 Practice Set 3: 48 Exam-Style Questions

This set features 48 realistic scenario questions covering AKS, Container Registry, Cosmos DB, aligned directly with the official Microsoft Azure AI Cloud Developer Associate (AI-200) syllabus.

Study & Domain Breakdown Author: Rohan (Cloud & Infrastructure Engineer) · Verified by Elena Rostova (Staff Kubernetes SRE)
Difficulty Level
Intermediate to Exam-Level
24 Real Exam Questions flagged
Estimated Time
~86 – 106 Minutes
Approx. 2 mins / question target pace
Passing Standard
700 / 1000 (70%)
Aim for ≥ 36 correct before exam day

Domain Weighting & Distribution

Set 3 balances containerized deployment lifecycles with distributed telemetry collection: Domain 1 (25%), Domain 2 (25%), Domain 3 (27%), and Domain 4 (23%).

Domain 1: 12 Qs Domain 2: 12 Qs Domain 3: 13 Qs Domain 4: 11 Qs

Architectural Trade-offs Tested in Set 3

  • Azure Container Registry Premium Geo-Replication vs. Standard Registry: Premium geo-replication enables local pull latency across multi-region AKS clusters and automatic base-image patch triggers, whereas Standard ACR requires inter-region data transfer fees and network egress latency.
  • Redis Enterprise Active-Active Geo-Distribution vs. Standard Replication: Active-Active clustering in Azure Managed Redis utilizes Conflict-Free Replicated Data Types (CRDTs) to allow concurrent writes across multiple continents with seamless automatic conflict resolution.
  • KEDA Scaling: Service Bus Queue Length vs. CPU/Memory Thresholds: Traditional pod autoscaling (HPA) based on CPU/RAM lags behind traffic spikes; KEDA scales pods directly against queue message backlog metrics, enabling scale-to-zero when queues are idle.

Exam Traps & Common Distractor Pitfalls

  • Common Trap: Writing custom polling loops in Azure Functions to drain Service Bus queues.
    Engineering Reality: Custom loops waste execution billing and block runtime threads; use built-in Service Bus triggers with PeekLock mode to process messages reactively with automatic dead-lettering.
  • Common Trap: Deploying OpenTelemetry collectors as external VMs for AKS workloads.
    Engineering Reality: OpenTelemetry instrumentation in modern AKS clusters should be deployed as a DaemonSet or sidecar leveraging the Azure Monitor OpenTelemetry Distro for native Log Analytics ingestion.
Priority Questions (Verified Real Exam Questions): Questions marked with Priority · Real Exam are verified questions that have previously appeared on live Microsoft AI-200 certification exams. If your preparation time is tight, use the Priority · Real Exam filter below to practice these first.
Study Strategy: Review KQL syntax for Application Insights requests and exceptions. Scenario questions frequently provide Log Analytics query snippets and ask you to identify the root cause of 500-series container failures.
Q1 Service Bus Domain 3 · 20–25% of exam

A workflow requires that messages from a single session (e.g., all messages for one order) are processed in order by the same consumer. Which feature enables this?

  1. A Message deduplication
  2. B Partition key
  3. C Sessions (session-enabled queues/subscriptions) (correct answer)
  4. D Dead-letter queue

Shortcut: Service Bus sessions enable FIFO ordering for groups of related messages. All messages with the same SessionId are handled by a single consumer in the order they were sent.

Q2 Cosmos DB Domain 2 · 25–30% of exam

Which property in a Cosmos DB container controls how data is distributed across logical partitions?

  1. A Container ID
  2. B Primary key
  3. C Partition key (correct answer)
  4. D Sort key

Shortcut: The partition key determines how documents are grouped into logical partitions. Choosing a high-cardinality partition key (many distinct values) ensures even distribution of data and throughput.

Q3 Key Vault Domain 4 · 20–25% of exam

Which Key Vault tier supports Hardware Security Module (HSM)-backed keys with FIPS 140-2 Level 2 validation?

  1. A Standard tier (software keys only)
  2. B Premium tier (HSM-backed keys) (correct answer)
  3. C Both tiers
  4. D Neither; HSM requires a dedicated HSM

Shortcut: Key Vault Premium tier stores keys in HSMs validated to FIPS 140-2 Level 2. For FIPS 140-2 Level 3, use Azure Managed HSM (a separate service).

Q4 AKS Domain 1 · 20–25% of exam

A team deploys a DaemonSet in AKS. How many pods does it run per node?

  1. A One per cluster
  2. B One per namespace
  3. C One per node (correct answer)
  4. D Determined by replica count

Shortcut: DaemonSets ensure exactly one pod runs on every eligible node (or a subset via node selector/tolerations). Used for log agents, monitoring agents, etc.

Q5 Event Hubs Domain 3 · 20–25% of exam Priority · Real Exam

What is the purpose of a checkpoint in the Event Processor client?

  1. A To acknowledge and delete events
  2. B To record the offset processed per partition so another host can resume from that point (correct answer)
  3. C To compact the log
  4. D To trigger scaling

Shortcut: Event Hubs never deletes on read. Checkpoints persist the last processed offset in a blob store, so a restarted or rebalanced processor resumes rather than reprocessing everything.

Q6 PostgreSQL Domain 2 · 25–30% of exam Priority · Real Exam

Which session parameter tunes the recall/latency trade-off for HNSW at query time?

  1. A ivfflat.probes
  2. B hnsw.ef_search (correct answer)
  3. C work_mem
  4. D random_page_cost

Shortcut: ef_search controls how many candidates are examined per query. Higher values improve recall at the cost of latency, and can be set per session or per transaction.

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SET hnsw.ef_search controls how many candidates are examined per query. Higher values improve recall at the cost of latency, and can be set per session or per transaction.
Q7 Monitor Domain 4 · 20–25% of exam Priority · Real Exam

Which component decides who is notified when an alert rule fires?

  1. A Log Analytics workspace
  2. B Action group (correct answer)
  3. C Alert processing rule
  4. D Diagnostic setting

Shortcut: The alert rule defines the condition; the action group defines the response, including email, SMS, webhook, Logic App, Function, and ITSM connectors.

Q8 Event Grid Domain 3 · 20–25% of exam

What is the Event Grid event delivery guarantee?

  1. A Exactly-once delivery
  2. B At-least-once delivery with retry (correct answer)
  3. C At-most-once delivery
  4. D No delivery guarantee

Shortcut: Event Grid provides at-least-once delivery. For each event, it retries delivery using exponential backoff for up to 24 hours (configurable). Events may be delivered more than once; handlers should be idempotent.

Q9 Redis Domain 2 · 25–30% of exam

Which Redis data structure is optimal for implementing a leaderboard sorted by score?

  1. A String
  2. B Hash
  3. C List
  4. D Sorted Set (ZSET) (correct answer)

Shortcut: Sorted Sets store members with a floating-point score, sorted by score automatically. ZADD, ZRANK, ZRANGE enable efficient leaderboard operations (add score, get rank, list top N).

Q10 AKS Domain 1 · 20–25% of exam

An application requires persistent storage that can be mounted by multiple pods simultaneously across nodes. Which Azure storage type should you use?

  1. A Azure Disk with ReadWriteOnce
  2. B Azure Files with ReadWriteMany (correct answer)
  3. C Azure Blob with ReadWriteOnce
  4. D Azure Disk with ReadWriteMany

Shortcut: Azure Disk supports ReadWriteOnce (single node). Azure Files (SMB/NFS) supports ReadWriteMany, allowing concurrent mounts from multiple pods/nodes.

Q11 Monitor Domain 4 · 20–25% of exam

Which Application Insights feature automatically detects anomalies in request failure rates and response times without manual threshold configuration?

  1. A Log alerts
  2. B Smart Detection (Intelligent Detection) (correct answer)
  3. C Custom metrics
  4. D Availability tests

Shortcut: Smart Detection (now Detector rules) uses machine learning to automatically detect unusual changes in failure rates, response times, dependency failures, and memory leaks without requiring manual alert thresholds.

Q12 Functions Domain 3 · 20–25% of exam Priority · Real Exam

An orchestration must call activity B with the output of activity A, then C with B's output. Which Durable Functions pattern is this?

  1. A Fan-out/fan-in
  2. B Function chaining (correct answer)
  3. C Monitor
  4. D Aggregator

Shortcut: CallActivityAsync calls.

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Function chaining executes activities in sequence, awaiting each result before invoking the next, expressed with successive await context.CallActivityAsync calls.
Q13 Redis Domain 2 · 25–30% of exam Priority · Real Exam

Which pattern implements a fixed-window rate limiter of 100 requests per minute per user?

  1. A INCR on a key including the minute, with EXPIRE 60 on first increment (correct answer)
  2. B LPUSH then LLEN
  3. C SETNX only
  4. D ZADD with the timestamp as score

Shortcut: INCR on a key such as rl:{user}:{minute} is atomic; setting EXPIRE when the counter is first created makes the window self-cleaning. A sorted set supports sliding windows at higher cost.

Q14 RBAC Domain 4 · 20–25% of exam

What is the difference between a system-assigned and user-assigned managed identity?

  1. A System-assigned can be shared across resources; user-assigned cannot
  2. B System-assigned is tied to one resource's lifecycle; user-assigned is standalone and can be assigned to multiple resources (correct answer)
  3. C User-assigned is automatically deleted with the resource
  4. D They are functionally identical

Shortcut: System-assigned identity is created with and deleted with the resource. User-assigned identity is a standalone Azure resource that can be assigned to multiple services and persists independently.

Q15 Service Bus Domain 3 · 20–25% of exam

What is the maximum message lock duration in Azure Service Bus?

  1. A 1 minute
  2. B 5 minutes
  3. C The lock can be renewed indefinitely up to the message time-to-live (correct answer)
  4. D 30 seconds

Shortcut: The initial lock duration is configurable (max 5 minutes per renewal). Applications can renew the lock (RenewMessageLock) as long as needed, up to the message TTL, for long-running processing.

Q16 AKS Domain 1 · 20–25% of exam Priority · Real Exam

Which AKS network plugin assigns pods IP addresses directly from the VNet subnet, enabling direct pod addressing from on-premises?

  1. A kubenet
  2. B Azure CNI (correct answer)
  3. C Flannel
  4. D Calico

Shortcut: Azure CNI allocates pod IPs from the VNet subnet, so pods are routable within the VNet and from peered/on-prem networks. kubenet uses an overlay with NAT and requires user-defined routes.

Q17 PostgreSQL Domain 2 · 25–30% of exam

What does the probes_per_query parameter control in pgvector IVFFlat indexes?

  1. A Number of index build threads
  2. B Number of inverted lists probed during ANN search, trading recall for speed (correct answer)
  3. C Maximum vector dimensions
  4. D Compression ratio

Shortcut: probes=N) controls how many inverted list clusters are scanned during search. Higher values improve recall but increase query time.

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probes_per_query (set via SET ivfflat.probes=N) controls how many inverted list clusters are scanned during search. Higher values improve recall but increase query time.
Q18 RBAC Domain 4 · 20–25% of exam Priority · Real Exam

Which mechanism can explicitly block an action even when an allow assignment exists?

  1. A A deny assignment (for example created by Azure Blueprints or a managed application) (correct answer)
  2. B A Reader role
  3. C A resource lock
  4. D A tag

Shortcut: Deny assignments take precedence over allow assignments. They are created by the platform, not directly by users, and are how managed applications protect their resources.

Q19 Service Bus Domain 3 · 20–25% of exam Priority · Real Exam

A subscriber should receive only messages where the 'priority' property equals 'high'. What do you configure?

  1. A A SQL filter or correlation filter on the subscription (correct answer)
  2. B A separate namespace
  3. C A session
  4. D A dead-letter rule

Shortcut: Subscription rules filter topic messages. A correlation filter matching a property is the most efficient; a SQL filter supports richer expressions at slightly higher cost.

Q20 Cosmos DB Domain 2 · 25–30% of exam

What is the maximum storage size per logical partition in Cosmos DB?

  1. A 2 GB
  2. B 10 GB
  3. C 20 GB (correct answer)
  4. D Unlimited

Shortcut: Each logical partition in Cosmos DB has a maximum size of 20 GB. Choose a partition key that distributes data across many logical partitions to avoid hitting this limit.

Q21 Container Registry Domain 1 · 20–25% of exam

Which built-in RBAC role grants read-only image pull access to an ACR registry?

  1. A AcrPush
  2. B AcrPull (correct answer)
  3. C Contributor
  4. D Reader

Shortcut: AcrPull grants pull (read) permission only. AcrPush adds push/write. Reader grants broader Azure management plane read access.

Q22 Event Hubs Domain 3 · 20–25% of exam

An IoT application produces millions of telemetry events per second. Which Event Hubs tier is appropriate for this scale?

  1. A Basic
  2. B Standard
  3. C Premium
  4. D Dedicated (correct answer)

Shortcut: Event Hubs Dedicated provides isolated, single-tenant clusters with guaranteed capacity (Capacity Units), supporting millions of events/sec with 90-day retention and no throughput unit limits.

Q23 Key Vault Domain 4 · 20–25% of exam

What is the purpose of Key Vault key rotation?

  1. A Deletes old secrets automatically
  2. B Creates a new key version (current version changes), with the old version retained for decryption of existing data (correct answer)
  3. C Regenerates the vault access key
  4. D Migrates keys to another region

Shortcut: Key rotation creates a new key version. The new version becomes active for new operations. Old versions remain available for decryption of data encrypted with them (retained in vault).

Q24 Cosmos DB Domain 2 · 25–30% of exam Priority · Real Exam

Which consistency level guarantees read-your-own-writes within a client session while remaining cheaper than Strong?

  1. A Eventual
  2. B Consistent Prefix
  3. C Session (correct answer)
  4. D Bounded Staleness

Shortcut: Session consistency uses a session token to guarantee monotonic reads and read-your-own-writes for that client. It is the default and offers the best balance of consistency and cost.

Q25 Event Grid Domain 3 · 20–25% of exam Priority · Real Exam

You need to route only blob-created events for files ending in '.jpg'. How is this configured most efficiently?

  1. A Filter in the handler code
  2. B Subject filtering with subjectEndsWith on the subscription (correct answer)
  3. C A separate storage account
  4. D An advanced filter on event time

Shortcut: subjectBeginsWith and subjectEndsWith are evaluated by Event Grid before delivery, avoiding both delivery cost and handler invocations for irrelevant events.

Q26 Key Vault Domain 4 · 20–25% of exam Priority · Real Exam

A secret must be rotated automatically every 60 days. Which combination implements this?

  1. A A rotation policy plus an Event Grid notification triggering a Function that generates and stores the new value (correct answer)
  2. B A TTL on the secret
  3. C Manual rotation only
  4. D Soft delete

Shortcut: Key Vault rotation policies emit near-expiry events. A subscriber, typically a Function, performs the credential change at the source system and writes the new version back.

Q27 Redis Domain 2 · 25–30% of exam

An AI application uses Azure Cache for Redis to cache embedding vectors to avoid redundant inference calls. Which Redis command stores a vector as a binary string?

  1. A SET key vector_bytes (correct answer)
  2. B HSET key field vector_bytes
  3. C RPUSH key vector_bytes
  4. D ZADD key score vector_bytes

Shortcut: , float32 bytes) and stored as binary strings via SET/GET. For structured caching with expiry, SET with EX (expiry) is most common.

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Embedding vectors are typically serialized (e.g., float32 bytes) and stored as binary strings via SET/GET. For structured caching with expiry, SET with EX (expiry) is most common.
Q28 Container Apps Domain 1 · 20–25% of exam Priority · Real Exam

An app must be reachable only by other apps in the same environment. Which ingress setting applies?

  1. A External ingress with an IP restriction
  2. B Internal ingress (correct answer)
  3. C Ingress disabled
  4. D External ingress with client certificates

Shortcut: Internal ingress publishes the app on the environment's internal load balancer with a private FQDN. Disabling ingress entirely would make it unreachable even internally.

Q29 Functions Domain 3 · 20–25% of exam

Which Azure Functions trigger fires when a new message arrives in an Azure Service Bus queue?

  1. A HTTP trigger
  2. B Timer trigger
  3. C Service Bus trigger (correct answer)
  4. D Queue Storage trigger

Shortcut: The Service Bus trigger listens to a queue or topic subscription and invokes the function for each message. It handles PeekLock, abandonment on failure, and dead-lettering automatically.

Q30 Monitor Domain 4 · 20–25% of exam

An Application Insights availability test sends HTTP requests every 5 minutes from multiple Azure regions. What is this monitoring?

  1. A Live Metrics Stream
  2. B Smart Detection
  3. C URL ping / standard availability test (correct answer)
  4. D Performance profiling

Shortcut: Availability tests (URL ping or standard tests) monitor external endpoints from multiple Azure PoP locations, alerting if the endpoint is unreachable or response time exceeds a threshold.

Q31 PostgreSQL Domain 2 · 25–30% of exam Priority · Real Exam

Why should an IVFFlat index be created after loading representative data rather than on an empty table?

  1. A Empty tables cannot be indexed
  2. B IVFFlat derives cluster centroids from existing rows; an empty table yields degenerate clusters (correct answer)
  3. C IVFFlat requires a primary key
  4. D It would lock the table

Shortcut: IVFFlat partitions the vector space using k-means over existing rows. Built on an empty or unrepresentative table, the centroids are meaningless and recall collapses.

Q32 Event Hubs Domain 3 · 20–25% of exam Priority · Real Exam

Two independent applications must each read the full event stream without interfering. What do you create?

  1. A Two event hubs
  2. B A separate consumer group for each application (correct answer)
  3. C Two namespaces
  4. D Two partitions

Shortcut: Consumer groups are independent views of the same stream, each with its own offsets, allowing multiple applications to consume all events at their own pace.

Q33 Monitor Domain 4 · 20–25% of exam Priority · Real Exam

Which alert type evaluates a KQL query on a schedule and fires when results cross a threshold?

  1. A Metric alert
  2. B Log search alert (correct answer)
  3. C Activity log alert
  4. D Smart detection

Shortcut: Log search alerts run a saved KQL query at an interval and evaluate the result count or a numeric column. Metric alerts operate on pre-aggregated platform metrics with lower latency.

Q34 Container Apps Domain 1 · 20–25% of exam

Which scale rule type triggers scaling when a specific number of messages are queued in Azure Service Bus?

  1. A HTTP scaling rule
  2. B CPU scaling rule
  3. C Custom (KEDA) scaling rule (correct answer)
  4. D Memory scaling rule

Shortcut: KEDA-based custom scaling rules connect to external event sources like Service Bus, Event Hubs, and storage queues using the same KEDA scalers as Kubernetes.

Q35 PostgreSQL Domain 2 · 25–30% of exam

A Flexible Server instance must accept connections from an AKS pod without exposing the database to the internet. Which connectivity method should you use?

  1. A Public endpoint with firewall rules
  2. B Private endpoint or VNet integration (correct answer)
  3. C Disable SSL and use IP allowlist
  4. D Azure Bastion

Shortcut: Private endpoint creates a private IP for the PostgreSQL server within the VNet, or VNet injection (Flexible Server) places the server directly in a delegated subnet. No public exposure needed.

Q36 Event Grid Domain 3 · 20–25% of exam

An Event Grid event subscription cannot deliver an event after exhausting retries. Where is the event sent?

  1. A Back to the source
  2. B Deleted silently
  3. C Dead-letter location (Azure Blob Storage) (correct answer)
  4. D System topic

Shortcut: Configure a dead-letter destination (Azure Blob Storage) on the subscription. Undeliverable events are written there for later inspection. Without dead-lettering, events are dropped after retry exhaustion.

Q37 RBAC Domain 4 · 20–25% of exam

A team follows just-in-time access principles. Which Azure AD (Entra ID) feature grants temporary elevated access for a specified duration?

  1. A Conditional Access
  2. B Azure RBAC role assignments (permanent)
  3. C Privileged Identity Management (PIM) eligible role assignments (correct answer)
  4. D Service principal rotation

Shortcut: PIM enables eligible role assignments where users must activate their role (with justification, MFA, approval) for a time-limited period. This implements just-in-time privileged access.

Q38 Redis Domain 2 · 25–30% of exam Priority · Real Exam

Which Azure Managed Redis tier is required for RediSearch vector capabilities?

  1. A Basic
  2. B Standard
  3. C A tier including the RediSearch module (Enterprise / Azure Managed Redis) (correct answer)
  4. D Any tier

Shortcut: Vector search depends on the RediSearch module, available in Enterprise tiers and Azure Managed Redis. Basic and Standard OSS tiers do not include modules.

Q39 Functions Domain 3 · 20–25% of exam Priority · Real Exam

An approval step must pause the workflow until a human clicks a link, potentially days later. Which Durable Functions capability supports this?

  1. A Timer trigger
  2. B WaitForExternalEvent with an optional timeout (correct answer)
  3. C Fan-out/fan-in
  4. D Retry policy

Shortcut: The human interaction pattern uses WaitForExternalEvent. The orchestration is dehydrated while waiting and rehydrated when RaiseEventAsync delivers the event, incurring no compute cost meanwhile.

Q40 Container Registry Domain 1 · 20–25% of exam Priority · Real Exam

Which authentication method should a GitHub Actions workflow use to push to ACR without storing long-lived secrets?

  1. A ACR admin username and password
  2. B Workload identity federation with an Azure AD app registration (correct answer)
  3. C A repository-scoped token committed as a secret
  4. D The kubelet managed identity

Shortcut: OIDC workload identity federation lets GitHub Actions exchange its short-lived OIDC token for an Azure AD access token. No client secret or admin credential is stored in the repository.

Q41 RBAC Domain 4 · 20–25% of exam Priority · Real Exam

What is the difference between the Owner and Contributor built-in roles?

  1. A They are identical
  2. B Owner can manage access (assign roles); Contributor can manage resources but not access (correct answer)
  3. C Contributor can delete; Owner cannot
  4. D Owner is read-only

Shortcut: Authorization/roleAssignments/write, which is the ability to grant access to others.

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Both have full resource management, but only Owner includes Microsoft.Authorization/roleAssignments/write, which is the ability to grant access to others.
Q42 Cosmos DB Domain 2 · 25–30% of exam

A Cosmos DB query runs without the partition key. What is the performance impact?

  1. A Query is rejected
  2. B Query runs as a cross-partition fan-out, consuming more RUs (correct answer)
  3. C Query uses a secondary index automatically
  4. D No impact; Cosmos DB optimizes all queries

Shortcut: Cross-partition queries fan out to every partition, multiplying RU cost. Always include the partition key in queries where possible for single-partition (efficient) execution.

Q43 Service Bus Domain 3 · 20–25% of exam

Which Service Bus message property allows a consumer to schedule a message to be available for processing at a future time?

  1. A ScheduledEnqueueTimeUtc (correct answer)
  2. B TimeToLive
  3. C DeliveryCount
  4. D CorrelationId

Shortcut: ScheduledEnqueueTimeUtc defers message delivery until a specific time. The message is stored in Service Bus but not visible to consumers until that time is reached.

Q44 Container Registry Domain 1 · 20–25% of exam Priority · Real Exam

The audit cannot prove which build was running during an incident. Which change addresses the finding at its root?

  1. A Add a build number to the tag and keep deploying by tag
  2. B Deploy by image digest (sha256) and enable tag locking on released tags (correct answer)
  3. C Increase ACR retention
  4. D Enable ACR geo-replication

Shortcut: A tag is a mutable pointer, so api:latest can resolve to different images over time. A digest is content-addressed and cannot be reassigned, which is what makes the deployed artefact provable after the fact. Tag locking prevents an already-released tag being overwritten.

Q45 AKS Domain 1 · 20–25% of exam Priority · Real Exam Choose 2

Which TWO changes remove the committed database password from the cluster while satisfying least privilege?

  1. A Enable Workload Identity so each pod federates to its own user-assigned managed identity (correct answer)
  2. B Mount the secret with the Secrets Store CSI Driver from Key Vault (correct answer)
  3. C Base64-encode the password before committing it
  4. D Grant the kubelet identity Key Vault Secrets User for all workloads
  5. E Move the password into a ConfigMap instead

Shortcut: Workload Identity gives each pod a distinct Azure identity, so permissions are scoped per workload rather than shared. The CSI driver then delivers the secret from Key Vault at mount time, so nothing is stored in the repository. Base64 is encoding, not encryption; the kubelet identity is shared by every pod on the node and breaks least privilege; ConfigMaps are plain text.

Q46 Container Registry Domain 1 · 20–25% of exam Priority · Real Exam

Registry traffic must never traverse the public internet. Which configuration satisfies this?

  1. A A firewall rule allowing only the AKS egress IP
  2. B A Premium registry with a private endpoint, public network access disabled, and the privatelink DNS zone linked to the cluster VNet (correct answer)
  3. C A service endpoint on the node subnet
  4. D Anonymous pull with an allow list

Shortcut: A private endpoint gives the registry a private IP inside the VNet. io, or clients would still resolve and use the public endpoint. Private endpoints require the Premium tier.

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A private endpoint gives the registry a private IP inside the VNet. Public access must also be disabled, and the VNet must resolve privatelink.azurecr.io, or clients would still resolve and use the public endpoint. Private endpoints require the Premium tier.
Q47 AKS Domain 1 · 20–25% of exam Priority · Real Exam Choose 2

Which TWO node pool decisions best match the workload profile described?

  1. A Run interruptible batch jobs on a Spot node pool with an eviction-tolerant controller (correct answer)
  2. B Put system pods and the intake API on a Spot pool to cut cost
  3. C Use a user node pool with the cluster autoscaler for the intake API (correct answer)
  4. D Disable the cluster autoscaler and fix the node count at peak size
  5. E Run everything on a single system node pool

Shortcut: Spot nodes are heavily discounted but can be evicted with 30 seconds' notice, which suits interruptible batch work only. The bursty intake API needs a user pool with the autoscaler so capacity follows the morning spike. System pods must never sit on Spot, and fixing the node count at peak wastes the overnight trough.

Q48 Container Apps Domain 1 · 20–25% of exam Priority · Real Exam

A separate internal API is being moved to Container Apps and must scale to zero overnight. Which scaling configuration achieves this?

  1. A minReplicas 1 with a CPU rule
  2. B minReplicas 0 with an HTTP concurrency rule (correct answer)
  3. C A fixed replica count of 2
  4. D A CPU rule alone with minReplicas 0

Shortcut: Scale to zero requires minReplicas 0 together with an event-driven or HTTP rule, because KEDA needs a signal that can be evaluated while no replica is running. A CPU rule cannot scale from zero: with no replica there is no CPU metric to read.